Be grateful for a steer on how assets should be divided between parties when there is divorce, assuming there is just a property, slightly unequal pensions (man is predicted to have about 25% more in value) and there are 3 children (>12yrs). They married at the start of their careers so limited if any assets prior to marriage.
-Is it permissible for one party to seek an allowance (monthly) post divorce? (That is not related to children)
-Is it permissible to equally divide the pension? (Esp assuming that will only be realised in 15-20 years ia!)
- if the man has paid more for the house over the course of the marriage is he entitled to more even though they were joint tenants?
It is permissible to change ownership to tenants-in-common without agreement from the other?
Jazaak-Allah-kum khairan for any advice